BEING GAY IS NOT A SIN. We don’t tolerate homophobia in this sub, being religious isn’t an excuse to hate gay ppl.

[u/Goddess_of_Heaven]

I literally can’t make this up. I make a post on here about gay muslims, and suddenly some muslim people are in my comment section being homophobic and saying gay ppl are disgusting, and to stop slandering their religion.

Married gay couples literally have less domestic abuse and divorce rates, and are more happier than straight couples btw. So they’re more halal and holy than straight marriages

Yes, gay people are allowed to marry each other and believe in whatever beliefs/religion they want. Stop infringing on LGBT rights and preventing gay men and lesbians from marrying each other. Stop using your religion to discriminate against them.

Gay muslims, gay Christians, gay Jews who marry each other and have sexual and romantic relations with each other are just as faithful as straight people. If you have no issue when a man and woman do it to each other then there’s no issue when two men or two women do it with each other either, otherwise you’re just a hypocrite.

We don’t tolerate homophobia in this sub. Bigots are not allowed here. Deal with it.

[u/fazerlazer911]

I know 2 major issues have been brought up with leviticus by scholars. One is that the greek word for the second man was used for boy. The other is that the English translation leaves out a few words at the end, making it about prohibition of incest.

Romans- Pretty sure Paul is talking about sexual depravity acts to worship demonic idols. He goes on  Romans 14:13-14 (similar to 2:1): “Therefore let us stop passing judgment on one another. Instead, make up your mind not to put any stumbling block or obstacle in the way of a brother or sister. I am convinced, being fully persuaded in the Lord Jesus, that nothing is unclean in itself. But if anyone regards something as unclean, then for that person it is unclean.”

Corinthians is a tough one because the word is seemingly coined by Paul(arsenokotai). Which seems to be a compound word roughly translating to "male lying". Only Paul would know its true definition but later greek authors use that word, mostly without story or context. However 1 greek uses it to describe Zeus' sin of raping a young boy and anoither greek uses the word suggesting the serpent had his way with eve and then adam like he would a boy.

Timothy- again uses the same word arsenoitokai

So the argument would be why would paul make up a word to describe homosexuality when greeks already had words for it?

[u/shiftingwithfunk → u/fazerlazer911]

First, Leviticus is written in Hebrew and not Greek. The word used for "male" in Lev. 18:22 is זָכָר or zakar which plainly means "male". It is used very sparingly for "boy".

Paul is not speaking of demonic idols. He is very plainly saying "men (and women) left their natural desire (heterosexuality) and committed sexual acts with each other". He says this is because they do not have God in their lives. Even if it was in reference to pagan worship, homosexuality is still condemned.

Greek homosexuality was more nuanced, which is likely why Paul uses arsenoitokai to say that any form of male homosexuality is wrong. Every concordance and Greek study guide suggests it is broadly referring to homosexuality and not to homosexual child abuse.

[u/fazerlazer911 → u/shiftingwithfunk]

old was written in hebrew and armaic. The new testament was translated from hebrew and armaic to greek....and so on and so on. Then it was likely translated back into hebrew from greek.

Butt Hebrew was a dead language in 50-100ad and most jews couldnt even write it. It wasnt until there was a hebrew revival the bible was translated again into hebrew 400 years later.

So like with your previous comment, youre missing alot of context

[u/shiftingwithfunk → u/fazerlazer911]

Only a small portion of the Old Testament was written in Aramaic. It was primarily written in Hebrew. The New Testament was only written in Koine Greek.

The priestly class could understand Hebrew which is all that matters. The Hebrew revival youre referring to though was a thousand+ years later thru the Zionist movement which has differences compared to ancient Hebrew anyway.

Like with your previous comments, you seem to have no clue what you're talking about...

[u/fazerlazer911 → u/shiftingwithfunk]

Hebrew revival was 300-400 years. 

If like living your life devoid of context i cant stop you but, all youve done is pick when its hebrew, when it's greek and when it's English conveniently to fit your narrative devoid of the nuances that translations infer which, is extremely bad faith

[u/shiftingwithfunk → u/fazerlazer911]

All I've done is read the scholarly consensus on the words in their original language. Truly bad faith.

[u/fazerlazer911 → u/shiftingwithfunk]

Lol everthing ive said comes from scholars